Question 1

The correct option is Automated investigation and response engine.

The Automated investigation and response engine in Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 2 automatically investigates suspicious messages by correlating alerts and email signals and it can take remediation actions such as deleting messages, moving them to quarantine, revoking delivered messages, and blocking malicious senders. This feature uses built in playbooks to reduce manual triage and to speed up response for security operations teams.

Secure presets and policies are templates and policy configurations that help prevent or reduce exposure to threats but they do not perform automated investigations or orchestrated remediation of individual incidents.

Security reports and dashboards provide visibility into security trends and alerts and they help analysts monitor and prioritize work but they do not themselves run investigations or take automated response actions.

Threat Explorer and hunting are interactive tools for manual investigation and threat hunting that allow analysts to query email telemetry and trace campaigns but they require human driven actions and do not perform automatic remediation.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When a question mentions automated investigation and remediation look for features whose name or description explicitly includes both investigation and response as part of their capability.

Question 2

Private cloud is correct because it provides the highest security and administrative control while requiring the greatest upfront capital investment.

Private cloud deployments dedicate infrastructure to a single organization so administrators can enforce strict configuration settings and access controls and meet demanding compliance requirements. Building or dedicating hardware and implementing the management tooling and staffing needed for a private cloud leads to high initial capital expenditures even if some operational costs are lower later on.

On premises is incorrect because the phrase describes the physical location and ownership of hardware rather than a specific cloud deployment model. On premises systems can require large capital investment but they are not necessarily implemented as a cloud model with the management and automation characteristics that define a private cloud.

Public cloud is incorrect because public cloud services share multi tenant infrastructure and shift most capital costs to the provider which lowers upfront investment for customers. Public clouds trade some administrative control for scalability and lower initial cost even though they can still provide strong security features.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When a question contrasts security and administrative control with cost think about whether the environment is dedicated to a single tenant. Private models typically indicate more control and higher upfront capital requirements.

Question 3

The correct option is Focus plans.

Focus plans is a feature in Microsoft Viva Insights that lets individuals block recurring focus time each workday and automatically set presence and quiet notifications during those sessions. It supports scheduling protected blocks such as 90 minutes and it can silence Microsoft Teams chats by setting Do not disturb and routing notifications so the staff can work on top priority tasks without interruptions.

Digests is incorrect because digests provide summary notifications or highlights rather than scheduling protected focus time or muting Teams chats.

Viva Connections is incorrect because Connections delivers an intranet and employee experience dashboard rather than personal productivity features that schedule focus sessions or silence chat notifications.

Insights add-ins is incorrect because add-ins surface insights and suggestions inside apps such as Outlook but they do not create recurring focus plans that automatically set Teams to quiet during blocked time.

Work patterns is incorrect because work patterns are analytical reports about collaboration and time use for managers and admins rather than a tool for individuals to reserve uninterrupted focus time and silence Teams messages.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When you see a question about blocking time and silencing Teams look for Viva Insights features that manage personal productivity. Focus on terms like focus time or Do not disturb to identify the correct feature.

Question 4

The correct options are Orchestrating security operations with automated playbooks, Providing enriched incident summaries with contextual details for triage, and Collecting telemetry at cloud scale from diverse sources.

Collecting telemetry at cloud scale from diverse sources is a fundamental capability of Microsoft Sentinel because it ingests logs and events from Azure services, on premises systems, network and endpoint solutions, and third party providers so security teams can run analytics and threat hunting across large datasets.

Providing enriched incident summaries with contextual details for triage is supported since Sentinel correlates related alerts into incidents and surfaces contextual entities, bookmarks, and investigation graphs to help analysts prioritize and investigate more quickly.

Orchestrating security operations with automated playbooks is available through integration with Logic Apps so you can automate response actions like blocking malicious actors, sending notifications, or creating tickets to scale SOAR workflows.

Real time packet capture is not a primary feature of Microsoft Sentinel. Packet capture is typically performed by network capture appliances or specialized tools and while Sentinel can ingest network telemetry and logs it does not function as a raw packet capture appliance.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

Focus on action words such as ingest, enrich, and orchestrate when attributing capabilities to Microsoft Sentinel. Pay attention to terms like packet capture as they often indicate specialized network tools rather than a cloud SIEM.

Question 5

The correct answer is Full USL.

The Full USL is intended for customers who have not previously purchased Microsoft products and it provides a complete, per user subscription that includes all product capabilities. For a first time Microsoft 365 deployment this option supplies the full feature set without requiring any existing on prem licenses or Software Assurance and it is the straightforward way to keep licensing costs predictable while delivering the full product.

Step Up USL is incorrect because step up licenses are used to upgrade an existing lower tier subscription to a higher tier and they assume you already have a qualifying base subscription. They are not meant for customers with no prior Microsoft licensing.

Add-on USL is incorrect because add on subscriptions require an underlying qualifying base license and they only provide additional features on top of that base. An add on cannot serve as the standalone license for a customer that has not implemented any Microsoft products.

From SA USL is incorrect because the From SA path is a conversion benefit for customers who already hold on prem licenses covered by Software Assurance. It provides discounted transition pricing but it is not available to organizations that have no existing Microsoft licenses or Software Assurance coverage.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When you see licensing questions first determine whether the customer already has qualifying licenses or Software Assurance. If they do not then choose the Full subscription option because add ons and From SA conversions require existing licenses.

Question 6

The correct options are Product, Cloud deployment, and Platform.

The Product filter lets you narrow roadmap entries to features that apply to a specific Microsoft 365 product so you can focus on items that matter to the product you manage.

The Cloud deployment filter allows you to limit entries by deployment environment so you only see features relevant to the cloud model your organization uses.

The Platform filter narrows entries to the target platform such as web, mobile, or desktop which helps you find items that affect particular client experiences.

The option Release status is incorrect because the roadmap does not present a filter under that exact name. Item states are shown in the roadmap entries, but the filtering controls use the specific labels like the ones above rather than a filter called Release status.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When you answer filter questions look for the exact filter labels used on the product page and use the live roadmap to confirm available filters.

Question 7

Secure Score provides a unified dashboard in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal to assess and raise the security posture of Microsoft 365 identities, applications, and devices.

Secure Score measures the current security posture across Microsoft 365 services and assigns a numeric score while listing improvement actions and their estimated impact so administrators can prioritize and implement recommendations to raise their security posture.

Threat Intelligence focuses on collecting and analyzing threat data and indicators to support investigations and detection and it does not provide the single aggregated posture score and improvement action dashboard.

Advanced hunting is an investigative query capability for searching raw telemetry across devices and identities and it is not a posture measurement tool with prioritized improvement actions.

Incidents and alerts provide event and security incident management so analysts can triage and respond and they do not offer the consolidated posture scoring and recommended improvement steps that Secure Score provides.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When a question asks which feature gives a unified view to assess and raise security posture look for the term that implies a measurable score and improvement actions, as that points to Secure Score.

Question 8

Azure RBAC is correct because it is the role based access control system that manages access to Azure resources through the Azure Resource Manager.

Azure RBAC assigns roles to users groups and service principals at subscription resource group and resource scope and it integrates with the Azure Resource Manager to grant fine grained permissions with built in and custom roles.

Azure Active Directory roles are incorrect because they apply to identity and directory level administration such as user and group management and they do not manage access to resource objects through ARM.

Azure Policy is incorrect because it is used to enforce organizational rules and compliance across resources and it evaluates and restricts resource properties rather than granting or assigning access permissions.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

When you see a question about who can perform actions on Azure resources think Azure RBAC for permissions through ARM and think Azure AD roles for directory administration and Azure Policy for enforcement of rules.

Question 9

Can be deployed and serviced with Configuration Manager or Intune is correct.

This choice correctly describes how Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise are managed in organizations because the client apps can be deployed and updated by using on premises Configuration Manager or by using cloud based Intune management.

Includes 1 TB of OneDrive storage per user is incorrect because storage entitlements are provided by the broader Microsoft 365 service and OneDrive licensing rather than being a property of the standalone Apps for enterprise deployment statement.

Enables real time co authoring in Office applications is incorrect as stated because real time co authoring depends on cloud storage and collaboration services such as OneDrive or SharePoint and on service licensing, and it is not solely a description of how the apps are deployed and serviced.

Intune alone is incorrect because that option names a management product rather than describing Contoso 365 Apps for Enterprise itself.

Google Workspace is incorrect because it is a competing productivity suite from Google and it does not describe Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise or how those apps are deployed.

Cameron’s MS Azure Exam Tip

Read each choice for whether it describes deployment and servicing or a separate service feature. Pay attention to management tools such as Configuration Manager and Intune when the question asks about how Microsoft 365 Apps are deployed and updated.

Question 10

The correct answer is User-assigned managed identity.

User-assigned managed identity is a standalone Azure resource that you create once and then assign to multiple Azure resources. It has its own lifecycle and credentials so you can manage or rotate it independently from the resources that use it.

Service principal is not correct because a service principal is an Azure AD identity object that represents an application or service and it is not the Azure managed identity type that is provisioned and shared the same way as a user assigned managed identity.

System-assigned managed identity is not correct because it is tied to a