MS-900 Sample Questions for Microsoft 365 Fundamentals

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If you want to pass the MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals exam on the first attempt, you not only have to learn the exam material, but you need to become an expert at how to think fast and answers Microsoft 365 Fundamentals exam questions quickly while under the pressure of a countdown clock.

To do that, you need practice, and that’s what this set of MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals practice questions is all about.

These MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals sample questions will not only help you understand how exam questions are structured, but they’ll also help you understand the way the various MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals exam topics are broached during the test.

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Now before we start, I want to emphasize that this MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals practice test is not an exam dump or braindump.

These practice exam questions have been sourced honestly, crafted by topic experts based on the stated exam objectives and with professional knowledge of how Azure exams are structured. This MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals exam simulator is not designed to help you cheat or give you actual copies of real exam questions. I want you to get certified ethically.

There are indeed, plenty of MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals braindump sites out there, but there is no honor in cheating your way through the certification. You won’t last a minute in the world of IT if you think that’s an appropriate way to pad your resume. Learning honestly and avoiding MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals exam dumps is the better way to proceed.

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Now, with that all said, here is the practice test.

Good luck, and remember, there are many more sample Microsoft exam questions waiting for you at certificationexams.pro. That’s where all of these exam questions and answers were originally sourced, and they have plenty of resources to help you earn your way to a perfect score on the exam.

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MS 365 Fundamentals Sample Questions

Question 1

Where can region specific Microsoft penetration test results and security assessment documents be accessed?

  • ❏ A. Microsoft 365 security center

  • ❏ B. Regional Compliance page of the Microsoft Trust Center

  • ❏ C. Service Trust Portal

  • ❏ D. Microsoft Purview compliance portal

Question 2

Which product in the Microsoft 365 suite includes the components Connections, Insights, Learning, and Topics?

  • ❏ A. Microsoft SharePoint

  • ❏ B. Microsoft Viva

  • ❏ C. Microsoft 365

Question 3

Which Microsoft 365 features can be used to protect corporate data on employees personal mobile devices? (Choose 3)

  • ❏ A. Require device PIN

  • ❏ B. Enabling Microsoft Defender for Office 365

  • ❏ C. Remote lock or disable device

  • ❏ D. Selective wipe of corporate data

Question 4

Which cloud service model offers a managed environment for developing, deploying, and running web applications?

  • ❏ A. Infrastructure as a Service

  • ❏ B. Platform as a Service

  • ❏ C. Managed Kubernetes

Question 5

Can store apps be installed in the hub so they run inside team chats and channels?

Question 6

Which migration approach should you use to move to Microsoft 365 while preserving a SharePoint site that is protected by third party encryption?

  • ❏ A. Migrate all content to Microsoft 365 and replace the third-party encryption with Microsoft Purview Customer Key

  • ❏ B. Retain the accounting department SharePoint site on-premises and migrate all other SharePoint sites and all Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365

  • ❏ C. Keep both the accounting SharePoint site and accounting mailboxes on-premises while migrating all other workloads to Microsoft 365

Question 7

Which Microsoft 365 application requires installation on a Windows desktop in order to run locally?

  • ❏ A. Visio

  • ❏ B. Outlook

  • ❏ C. Access

  • ❏ D. Word

Question 8

Which Microsoft 365 workload is designed to host stream and manage an organization’s training videos?

  • ❏ A. Microsoft Teams

  • ❏ B. Microsoft Stream

  • ❏ C. SharePoint Online

Question 9

In what ways does Endpoint Manager support a Zero Trust approach for ensuring device compliance and enforcing access control?

  • ❏ A. Azure Active Directory Conditional Access

  • ❏ B. Device compliance reporting and remediation

  • ❏ C. Security analytics and telemetry

Question 10

Which Microsoft Sentinel integrated tool provides an interactive canvas in the Azure portal for exploring telemetry data and building visual reports?

  • ❏ A. Log Analytics workspace

  • ❏ B. Azure Monitor Workbooks

  • ❏ C. Azure Notebooks

Question 11

Which dashboard widget helps plan and monitor the assigned capacity of team members during a sprint?

  • ❏ A. Burndown chart

  • ❏ B. Sprint capacity

  • ❏ C. Query tile

Question 12

Which Microsoft 365 service provides reports for device compliance, device health, and fleet trend metrics?

  • ❏ A. Microsoft 365 Defender

  • ❏ B. Endpoint Manager with Microsoft Intune

  • ❏ C. Microsoft Purview

Question 13

Within a tenant how is the term “Directory” used in the context of identity and access resources?

  • ❏ A. A separate database for guest and external users

  • ❏ B. A logical container inside the tenant that holds users groups devices applications and other identity related objects

  • ❏ C. The physical data store that contains every file of the identity service for the tenant

Question 14

What is the best way to prevent all users except the IT team from receiving Microsoft 365 feature updates until those updates are approved by IT?

  • ❏ A. Manage updates centrally with Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager

  • ❏ B. Assign non-IT staff to Standard release and give IT Targeted release

  • ❏ C. Place every user on the Monthly Enterprise Channel

Question 15

Does Conditional Access App Control enforce policies in both Microsoft and third party cloud applications and does Microsoft Secure Score provide direct control over access and user activities in cloud applications?

  • ❏ A. No for statement one and Yes for statement two

  • ❏ B. Yes for statement one and No for statement two

  • ❏ C. No for statement one and No for statement two

Question 16

Can an organization purchase subscription licenses through the Cloud Solution Provider program to run software on its own servers?

  • ❏ A. Volume Licensing

  • ❏ B. No

  • ❏ C. Yes

Question 17

Can third party applications be added to Microsoft Teams and can applications from the Microsoft Store be installed directly within Teams?

  • ❏ A. True for both statements

  • ❏ B. True for the first and False for the second

  • ❏ C. False for both statements

Question 18

Can Microsoft 365 data loss prevention policies locate sensitive content in Teams and SharePoint and support exporting the discovered items for review?

  • ❏ A. No only eDiscovery can export discovered content

  • ❏ B. Yes DLP can locate and export items from Teams and SharePoint

  • ❏ C. DLP can locate content but cannot export it

Question 19

Is each Windows 365 Cloud PC assigned to a single user and does it retain that user’s personal settings across sessions?

  • ❏ A. No it is false

  • ❏ B. Yes it is true

Question 20

Which Microsoft platform is specifically designed for customer relationship management applications?

  • ❏ A. Power Apps

  • ❏ B. SharePoint

  • ❏ C. Dynamics 365

  • ❏ D. Microsoft Azure

Question 21

Which Microsoft Sentinel feature displays an interactive graph that lets you explore entities and visualize their relationships during an incident?

  • ❏ A. Workbooks

  • ❏ B. Analytics

  • ❏ C. Investigation

  • ❏ D. Hunting

Question 22

Which capability is available only in Microsoft 365 Cloud PCs and not in Azure Virtual Desktop?

  • ❏ A. Administrators can manage VMs with Microsoft Endpoint Manager

  • ❏ B. Users can sign into dedicated personal virtual machines

  • ❏ C. Users can rename their assigned Cloud PC

Question 23

Which release type provides preview quality updates so organizations can validate non security fixes before those fixes are included in the next monthly cumulative update?

  • ❏ A. B releases

  • ❏ B. C releases

  • ❏ C. Out of band releases

Question 24

What is the primary role of Defender Vulnerability Management within an organization’s cybersecurity program?

  • ❏ A. Protecting email platforms from phishing and malware

  • ❏ B. Continuous asset discovery and prioritized vulnerability remediation

  • ❏ C. Detecting and investigating compromised user accounts

Question 25

If Microsoft 365 Apps for Enterprise is deactivated on a device, what action can still be performed on that device?

  • ❏ A. Create a new document from a template

  • ❏ B. Print a document

  • ❏ C. Edit documents

Question 26

Which Microsoft 365 service is specifically built to store and stream corporate training videos?

  • ❏ A. SharePoint Online

  • ❏ B. OneDrive for Business

  • ❏ C. Microsoft Stream

Question 27

Which Microsoft 365 features let you apply confidentiality labels to files and prevent them from being shared externally? (Choose 2)

  • ❏ A. Create retention labels

  • ❏ B. Apply sensitivity labels to files

  • ❏ C. Create a data-loss prevention policy

  • ❏ D. Configure S/MIME for Outlook

Question 28

How does Microsoft Copilot for Microsoft 365 help users while they work within Microsoft 365 apps?

  • ❏ A. It requires no administrative controls for data and privacy

  • ❏ B. It fully automates tasks without user approval

  • ❏ C. It integrates into Microsoft 365 apps to generate drafts summarize content and surface relevant information to boost productivity

  • ❏ D. It only provides spelling and grammar suggestions

Question 29

Do Platform as a Service offerings include end-user applications such as office suites, endpoint management tools, and CRM applications?

Question 30

Which solution allows users to sign in to cloud applications using their on premises Active Directory credentials?

  • ❏ A. Active Directory Federation Services

  • ❏ B. Azure AD Connect

  • ❏ C. Azure AD Application Proxy

MS 365 Fundamentals Sample Questions Answered

Question 1

Where can region specific Microsoft penetration test results and security assessment documents be accessed?

  • ✓ B. Regional Compliance page of the Microsoft Trust Center

The correct option is Regional Compliance page of the Microsoft Trust Center.

The Regional Compliance page of the Microsoft Trust Center is where Microsoft publishes region specific compliance artifacts and guidance, and it links to provider level security assessment documents and penetration test summaries that vary by country or region. This page serves as the official hub for customers to find region specific evidence and directions for requesting additional materials.

Microsoft 365 security center is a tenant level console for managing and monitoring security settings and incidents for your organization, and it does not host Microsoft published, region specific penetration test reports or provider security assessment publications.

Service Trust Portal does provide access to many compliance reports and some audit artifacts and it can be used to request certain documents, but Microsoft organizes region specific penetration test results and security assessments through the Trust Center regional compliance pages as the primary public index for regional materials.

Microsoft Purview compliance portal is focused on managing tenant level compliance, data governance, and information protection for customers, and it is not the central public repository for Microsoft’s region specific penetration test results or provider security assessment documents.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question asks about where to find region specific provider documents check the Microsoft Trust Center and its Regional Compliance pages rather than tenant management portals.

Question 2

Which product in the Microsoft 365 suite includes the components Connections, Insights, Learning, and Topics?

The correct option is Microsoft Viva.

Microsoft Viva is Microsoft’s employee experience platform and it is explicitly composed of modules called Connections, Insights, Learning, and Topics which provide integrated experiences for employee engagement, wellbeing, learning, and knowledge discovery across Microsoft 365 and Teams.

Microsoft Viva is delivered as a set of services that integrate with SharePoint and Teams so that organizations can surface portals, learning content, analytics, and topic pages within the tools people already use.

Microsoft SharePoint is primarily a content management and intranet platform and it can host pages and integrate with Viva Connections, but it is not the offering that bundles Connections, Insights, Learning, and Topics as a single employee experience suite.

Microsoft 365 is the broader subscription that contains Office apps and cloud services and it provides the platform on which Viva runs, but it is not the named product that specifically contains Connections, Insights, Learning, and Topics.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question lists specific module names match those names to the product that is described as an employee experience platform. Remember that Microsoft Viva is the bundle that contains Connections, Insights, Learning, and Topics.

Question 3

Which Microsoft 365 features can be used to protect corporate data on employees personal mobile devices? (Choose 3)

  • ✓ A. Require device PIN

  • ✓ C. Remote lock or disable device

  • ✓ D. Selective wipe of corporate data

The correct options are Require device PIN, Remote lock or disable device and Selective wipe of corporate data.

Require device PIN is a device compliance control you can enforce with Microsoft Intune or another mobile device management solution and it ensures that a user must authenticate locally before corporate resources can be accessed.

Remote lock or disable device allows administrators to lock or disable a lost or stolen device remotely so corporate accounts and data are not exposed while the device is out of custody.

Selective wipe of corporate data removes only corporate apps and data while leaving personal content intact and it is implemented through app protection policies or selective wipe and retire actions in device management.

Enabling Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is incorrect because that service protects email and collaboration tools from phishing and malware and it does not by itself enforce device PINs or perform remote locks or selective wipes on mobile devices.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question asks about protecting corporate data on personal mobile devices think device management and app protection features such as PIN enforcement, remote lock and selective wipe rather than services that focus on email threat protection.

Question 4

Which cloud service model offers a managed environment for developing, deploying, and running web applications?

  • ✓ B. Platform as a Service

The correct answer is Platform as a Service.

Platform as a Service provides a managed runtime environment and application services so developers can build deploy and run web applications without managing the underlying servers operating system or runtime updates. The cloud provider handles scaling load balancing and many operational tasks which aligns with the phrase managed environment in the question.

Infrastructure as a Service is incorrect because it delivers virtual machines networking and storage that you must configure and maintain. That model leaves you responsible for operating system and runtime management so it does not match a fully managed application environment.

Managed Kubernetes is incorrect because it offers managed container orchestration rather than a full application platform. You still need to package applications into containers manage deployments and handle cluster configuration so it is closer to a container or infrastructure service than a classic platform service.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

Focus on keywords like managed environment and build deploy and run in the question text and map them to PaaS offerings for a quick identification.

Question 5

Can store apps be installed in the hub so they run inside team chats and channels?

No is correct because apps from the store are not placed into a general hub as a container that automatically runs inside team chats and channels.

Store apps must be installed or added with a specific scope and capability to operate in a chat or channel. An app must include supported components such as a tab, bot, or messaging extension and it must be installed to the team or chat where it is intended to run. Simply being available in the store does not mean the app is installed into a hub and running automatically inside chats and channels.

Yes is incorrect because it implies that a store app can be dropped into a hub to run across chats and channels by default. That is not how app installation and scope work and an app must be explicitly installed with the appropriate scopes and permissions to operate in those contexts.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When answering questions about where apps run focus on the app scope and the required capabilities. Look for words that indicate scope such as personal, team, or chat and match those to the app components mentioned in the question.

Question 6

Which migration approach should you use to move to Microsoft 365 while preserving a SharePoint site that is protected by third party encryption?

  • ✓ B. Retain the accounting department SharePoint site on-premises and migrate all other SharePoint sites and all Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365

The correct answer is Retain the accounting department SharePoint site on-premises and migrate all other SharePoint sites and all Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365.

This option is correct because retaining the accounting department SharePoint site on-premises and migrating all other SharePoint sites and all Exchange mailboxes to Microsoft 365 preserves the third party encryption where it exists while allowing you to move mailboxes and other SharePoint sites into the cloud for centralized management and modern services.

Third party encryption is typically bound to keys and to on-premises infrastructure that are not transferable to SharePoint Online. Keeping the encrypted site on-premises avoids forced decryption and re encryption and helps maintain compliance and access controls while you migrate other workloads.

Migrate all content to Microsoft 365 and replace the third-party encryption with Microsoft Purview Customer Key is incorrect because you cannot simply replace third party encryption on existing files after migration. Microsoft Purview Customer Key does not give you the original third party keys so you would need to decrypt the data before migration or risk losing access.

Keep both the accounting SharePoint site and accounting mailboxes on-premises while migrating all other workloads to Microsoft 365 is incorrect because the accounting mailboxes can usually be migrated independently of the encrypted SharePoint site. Keeping the mailboxes on-premises adds operational overhead and prevents you from using cloud email features without delivering any benefit for the encrypted site.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question mentions third party encryption look for an answer that isolates the encrypted data on-premises while migrating other workloads to the cloud to reduce risk and complexity.

Question 7

Which Microsoft 365 application requires installation on a Windows desktop in order to run locally?

The correct answer is Access.

Access is a Windows desktop database application and the full client is provided only for Windows. The rich desktop features and the Access runtime depend on Windows components and there is no full equivalent desktop client for Mac, so Access requires a Windows installation to run locally.

Visio is not correct because Visio is available as a web app called Visio for the web and users can view and perform basic edits without a Windows desktop install.

Outlook is not correct because Outlook is available on Windows and Mac and it also exists as Outlook on the web and as mobile apps so it does not strictly require a Windows desktop installation.

Word is not correct because Word runs on Windows and Mac and it is available as Word for the web and as mobile apps so a Windows desktop install is not strictly required to use Word.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When you see questions about which app “requires” a Windows install check whether the product has a web or Mac client. Remember that Access is the classic Windows only desktop database application.

Question 8

Which Microsoft 365 workload is designed to host stream and manage an organization’s training videos?

The correct answer is Microsoft Stream.

Microsoft Stream provides enterprise video services focused on uploading, streaming, managing, and securing training and organizational videos. It includes features such as adaptive playback, captions, permissions, and integration with Microsoft 365 so it is the product designed to handle organizational training content.

Microsoft Teams is primarily a collaboration and communication platform for chat, meetings, and calls. It can store meeting recordings and run live events but it does not offer the centralized video library, streaming optimization, and dedicated video management features that Microsoft Stream provides.

SharePoint Online is a content management and intranet platform that can store video files and host pages. Microsoft uses SharePoint and OneDrive as the storage layer for the modern Stream experience, but SharePoint by itself does not provide the specialized playback, permissions model, and video management features that the Stream service adds.

Microsoft has retired the classic Stream experience and migrated capabilities into the modern Stream experience built on SharePoint and OneDrive. Exams may still refer to Microsoft Stream conceptually so you should be aware of both the historical Stream service and the current Stream on SharePoint architecture when studying.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

Focus on the core purpose of each Microsoft 365 workload and match keywords such as streaming and video management to the product that specializes in media services. For training video questions the answer is usually Microsoft Stream.

Question 9

In what ways does Endpoint Manager support a Zero Trust approach for ensuring device compliance and enforcing access control?

  • ✓ B. Device compliance reporting and remediation

The correct option is Device compliance reporting and remediation.

The Device compliance reporting and remediation capability enables Endpoint Manager to continuously evaluate device posture against configured policies and report the compliance state. It can trigger remediation actions such as requiring OS updates, enforcing configuration changes, quarantining the device, or blocking access until the device meets the policy.

This continuous monitoring and automated remediation supports a Zero Trust approach because access decisions are based on the current device state rather than on network location. By enforcing compliance before granting access the service ensures that only devices that meet policy requirements can reach protected resources.

Azure Active Directory Conditional Access is a Microsoft Azure feature for conditional access and is not a component of Google Endpoint Manager. It is therefore not the correct answer for how Google Endpoint Manager implements Zero Trust device compliance.

Security analytics and telemetry can provide useful signals about device behavior and risks but it is a broader capability and not the specific enforcement mechanism that provides compliance checks and automated remediation. Analytics alone do not implement the enforcement and remediation described in the correct option.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When you see questions about device compliance think about features that actively enforce posture such as continuous compliance checks and automated remediation and avoid choosing vendor specific services that do not belong to the platform in the question.

Question 10

Which Microsoft Sentinel integrated tool provides an interactive canvas in the Azure portal for exploring telemetry data and building visual reports?

  • ✓ B. Azure Monitor Workbooks

The correct answer is Azure Monitor Workbooks.

Azure Monitor Workbooks provides an interactive canvas in the Azure portal where you can combine queries, visualizations, and narrative into interactive reports and investigations. The feature can pull telemetry from the Log Analytics workspace that stores Sentinel data and from other sources, and it supports charts, grids, parameters, and linked queries which match the description in the question.

The Log Analytics workspace is where telemetry is collected and where you run Kusto queries to analyze data. It is the data store and query environment rather than the interactive reporting canvas, so it does not itself provide the assembled visual report experience described in the question.

The Azure Notebooks service was a hosted Jupyter notebooks offering and it has been retired. It was never the integrated interactive reporting canvas inside the Azure portal for Sentinel workbooks, and because it is deprecated it is less likely to appear as the correct choice on newer exams.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

Focus on the primary function of each service when you read the options. Decide whether the option stores data, analyzes data with queries, or builds interactive visualizations to choose the right answer.

Question 11

Which dashboard widget helps plan and monitor the assigned capacity of team members during a sprint?

The correct option is Sprint capacity.

The Sprint capacity widget shows each team member’s available hours and assigned work so you can plan and monitor capacity across the sprint. It lets you set individual capacity values and compare assigned tasks to available time which helps spot over allocation before or during the sprint.

Burndown chart tracks remaining work over the sprint and is useful to monitor overall progress toward completing the sprint scope. It does not provide per person capacity planning or assigned hours so it is not the right tool for managing individual team capacity.

Query tile displays the results of a work item query on a dashboard and can show counts or lists of items. It does not calculate or manage per person sprint capacity and therefore cannot be used to plan assigned capacity for team members.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question asks about planning or assigning individual hours look for features that manage capacity per person and not widgets that only track progress or list work items.

Question 12

Which Microsoft 365 service provides reports for device compliance, device health, and fleet trend metrics?

  • ✓ B. Endpoint Manager with Microsoft Intune

Endpoint Manager with Microsoft Intune is correct.

Endpoint Manager with Microsoft Intune provides device compliance policies and device health monitoring and it includes built in reporting and analytics for fleet trends. The service surfaces compliance status, noncompliant reasons, and device health metrics in the Microsoft Endpoint Manager admin center and in Intune reports. You can also export data through Microsoft Graph or to Power BI for deeper trend analysis and long term reporting.

Microsoft 365 Defender is focused on threat protection and endpoint detection and response. It provides security alerts and incident investigation but it does not provide fleet wide device compliance and routine device health trend reporting in the way that Intune does.

Microsoft Purview focuses on data governance and information protection and compliance of data and records. It is not the primary service for device compliance status or device health and fleet trend metrics.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question mentions device compliance or fleet trends associate it with Intune in Microsoft Endpoint Manager rather than data governance or threat protection services.

Question 13

Within a tenant how is the term “Directory” used in the context of identity and access resources?

  • ✓ B. A logical container inside the tenant that holds users groups devices applications and other identity related objects

A logical container inside the tenant that holds users groups devices applications and other identity related objects is correct.

The term directory describes a logical scope inside a tenant that organizes identity resources so administrators can manage users groups devices and applications together.

As a logical container the directory defines the boundary for policies access control and collaboration settings and it is the unit that provisioning and authentication target rather than a separate storage artifact.

A separate database for guest and external users is incorrect because guest and external accounts are represented as objects within the same directory and they are not kept in a distinct database separate from regular user objects.

The physical data store that contains every file of the identity service for the tenant is incorrect because a directory is an abstract identity construct and not a literal file system and the underlying data storage is an implementation detail of the identity service.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When you see questions about whether something is a directory think about whether the phrase describes a logical grouping and management boundary or a physical storage

Question 14

What is the best way to prevent all users except the IT team from receiving Microsoft 365 feature updates until those updates are approved by IT?

  • ✓ B. Assign non-IT staff to Standard release and give IT Targeted release

The correct answer is Assign non-IT staff to Standard release and give IT Targeted release.

This approach uses Microsoft 365 release options so IT receives feature updates early while other users stay on the later release. By placing IT users in Targeted release they get preview updates and can validate new features. By placing everyone else in Standard release those users do not get the features until IT approves them and the update reaches the broader audience.

Manage updates centrally with Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager is not the best choice for this question because the requirement is about controlling Microsoft 365 feature release timing by user group. Configuration Manager can deploy and manage updates but it does not provide the same built in targeted versus standard release gating that Microsoft 365 release options provide.

Place every user on the Monthly Enterprise Channel is incorrect because putting all users on the same channel gives them the same update timing. The Monthly Enterprise Channel still delivers feature updates to everyone on that channel so it would not let IT receive updates first while delaying them for non IT staff.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When a question asks about previewing or delaying Microsoft 365 features think about the release options and channels in the Microsoft 365 admin center. Remember that Targeted release is for early testing and Standard release is for the general audience.

Question 15

Does Conditional Access App Control enforce policies in both Microsoft and third party cloud applications and does Microsoft Secure Score provide direct control over access and user activities in cloud applications?

  • ✓ B. Yes for statement one and No for statement two

The correct option is Yes for statement one and No for statement two.

Statement one is correct because Conditional Access App Control is a capability of Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps that integrates with Microsoft Entra Conditional Access and can monitor and enforce session controls for supported Microsoft and many third party cloud apps. It can apply real time session policies to block actions or limit activities when a supported app is in use.

Statement two is incorrect because Microsoft Secure Score is a measurement and advisory tool that assesses your security posture and recommends improvements. Secure Score does not itself directly control access or user activities and you must implement security controls or conditional access policies to enforce changes.

The option No for statement one and Yes for statement two is incorrect because it denies the enforcement capability of Conditional Access App Control and it wrongly attributes direct enforcement to Microsoft Secure Score.

The option No for statement one and No for statement two is incorrect because it incorrectly states that Conditional Access App Control does not enforce policies while Secure Score also does not provide direct control.

Cameron’s Azure Exam Tip

When answering compare whether a feature enforces actions or only recommends them. Enforcement means the product can block or control sessions while recommendation means it provides guidance and scores without direct control.

Question 16

Can an organization purchase subscription licenses through the Cloud Solution Provider program to run software on its own servers?

The correct answer is No.

The Cloud Solution Provider program is focused on selling cloud subscriptions and those subscriptions typically cover hosted services rather than on-premises installation. If an organization needs rights to run software on its own servers it should look to licensing channels that provide on-premises rights such as Volume Licensing or bring your own license programs and Software Assurance.

Volume Licensing is not correct for this question because the question asks whether subscription licenses bought through the Cloud Solution Provider program can be used to run software on the customer servers. Volume Licensing is a separate licensing channel that commonly provides on-premises license rights but it is not the CSP subscription channel referenced in the question.

Yes is incorrect because CSP subscriptions are intended for cloud service usage and do not generally grant the right to run the licensed software on the customer owned physical servers. The program and partner contracts control use rights and those are different from on-premises perpetual licensing.

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