Microsoft MS-102 Administrator Exam Topics
Want to pass the MS-102 certification exam on your first try? You are in the right place, because we have put together a collection of sample MS-102 exam questions that will help you learn key Microsoft 365 administration concepts and prepare for the real MS-102 test.
All of these MS-102 practice questions come from my Microsoft 365 training courses and the certificationexams.pro website, two resources that have helped many students pass the MS-102 exam. If you are interested in even more MS-102 practice tests, using exam simulators with realistic question styles is highly recommended.
MS-102 Administrator Practice Questions
These are not MS-102 exam dumps or braindumps. They are carefully developed questions that resemble what you will experience on the real MS-102 certification exam. They will help you prepare honestly and build real foundational knowledge in Microsoft 365 administration.
So get ready to test your skills. Good luck on these practice questions, and even better luck when you take the official MS-102 exam.
| Git, GitHub & GitHub Copilot Certification Made Easy |
|---|
| Want to get certified on the most popular AI, ML & DevOps technologies of the day? These five resources will help you get GitHub certified in a hurry.
Get certified in the latest AI, ML and DevOps technologies. Advance your career today. |
Certification Exam Dump
365 Admin Expert Question 1
Fill the missing word. To protect data in Acme Cloud Workspace from accidental deletion, cyber threats and other forms of data loss, administrators should implement a comprehensive __ strategy?
-
❏ A. Retention and legal hold policy
-
❏ B. Cloud Storage snapshot policies
-
❏ C. Encryption at rest
-
❏ D. Backup
365 Admin Expert Question 2
At Meridian Tech when a Microsoft Teams data loss prevention rule prevents external sharing of confidential content what happens to messages that contain that sensitive information and are sent to external recipients within 30 seconds?
-
❏ A. quarantined for compliance review
-
❏ B. redacted and delivered with placeholders
-
❏ C. automatically deleted from the thread
-
❏ D. blocked and not delivered to external recipients
365 Admin Expert Question 3
A regional retailer named Meridian Retail runs an on premises Active Directory domain and has an AD FS farm with two AD FS servers on the internal network and two Web Application Proxy servers in the DMZ. The team configures hybrid identity with an Entra ID tenant and deploys a custom Microsoft Entra Connect setup that uses one active Entra Connect server and one server in staging mode. The requirement is to track sign in activity including the count and kinds of authentications and the count and kinds of authentication failures. The administrators install the Microsoft Entra Connect Health agent for AD FS on the AD FS servers and on the WAP servers. Does this configuration provide the required authentication activity and failure telemetry?
-
❏ A. Enable Entra ID sign in logs and forward them to Log Analytics
-
❏ B. Yes installing the Entra Connect Health agent on AD FS and WAP is sufficient
-
❏ C. No
-
❏ D. Deploy Microsoft Sentinel and ingest AD FS and Entra ID telemetry
365 Admin Expert Question 4
The security operations unit at Northwind Logistics is overwhelmed by a continuous stream of security alerts. Which capability in Microsoft 365 Defender can automate the investigation and remediation of those alerts?
-
❏ A. Microsoft Intelligent Security Graph
-
❏ B. Automated investigation and remediation
-
❏ C. Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
-
❏ D. Security Action Center
365 Admin Expert Question 5
A user has not configured alternate contact methods for self service password reset. What should they do next?
-
❏ A. Contact Microsoft support to request a password reset
-
❏ B. Ask the Microsoft 365 administrator to reset the account password
-
❏ C. Use a registered mobile phone to receive a verification code and reset the password
365 Admin Expert Question 6
You are the IT lead for a midsize firm that recently moved its messaging to Microsoft 365 and initially used the tenant default onmicrosoft.com domain, but the company now wants to use its own domain example.com for email and other services and you have already added and verified example.com in the Microsoft 365 admin center, what is the next action you should take to complete the custom domain setup?
-
❏ A. Attempt to delete the tenant default onmicrosoft.com domain
-
❏ B. Configure the domain DNS records such as MX TXT and CNAME at the domain registrar
-
❏ C. Change each user primary email address to use the new example.com domain manually from the admin console
-
❏ D. Create a separate Microsoft 365 tenant that is bound to example.com and migrate users into it
365 Admin Expert Question 7
When you create a data loss prevention policy for an organization that includes Exchange Online, SharePoint, OneDrive, and Teams which configuration choice specifies the exact services and repositories where the policy will be enforced?
-
❏ A. Permissions
-
❏ B. Sensitivity labels
-
❏ C. Locations
-
❏ D. Retention labels
365 Admin Expert Question 8
Which threat management capabilities are bundled with Contoso Email Protection subscriptions? (Choose 3)
-
❏ A. Anti-spam filtering
-
❏ B. Protection against malicious URLs and attachments
-
❏ C. Anti-malware scanning
-
❏ D. Advanced anti-phishing controls
-
❏ E. Zero hour automatic message removal
365 Admin Expert Question 9
Which of the following statements describe features and advantages of using Contoso Entra Connect and Contoso Entra Cloud Sync for hybrid identity management? (Choose 3)
-
❏ A. Password Hash Synchronization lets users sign in with their local directory credentials without deploying extra infrastructure
-
❏ B. Federation integration enables authentication to be redirected to external identity systems including third party multifactor services
-
❏ C. Pass through Authentication requires lightweight on premises agents but enforces on premises account states immediately
-
❏ D. Connect Health telemetry is available without purchasing additional service licenses
365 Admin Expert Question 10
In Microsoft 365 Defender where do you go to review high severity incidents that occurred in the past seven days?
-
❏ A. Alerts
-
❏ B. Incidents
-
❏ C. Threat analytics
-
❏ D. Advanced hunting
365 Admin Expert Question 11
As a compliance lead at a regional bank you want to understand which tiers Compliance Manager uses when calculating scores. Which of the following is not a level at which Compliance Manager assigns a score value?
-
❏ A. Control rating
-
❏ B. End user behavior score
-
❏ C. Remediation action score
-
❏ D. Evaluation score
365 Admin Expert Question 12
You manage tenant services for a company that uses Contoso 365 and you need to add multiple verified domains to the subscription. What is the maximum number of domains you can register?
-
❏ A. 1200 domains
-
❏ B. 900 domains
-
❏ C. 150 domains
-
❏ D. 600 domains
365 Admin Expert Question 13
Which two primary elements of Entra Connect Health are used to monitor directory synchronization services? (Choose 2)
-
❏ A. Cloud Monitoring
-
❏ B. Entra Connect Health monitoring agent
-
❏ C. Identity Protection for Azure Active Directory
-
❏ D. Entra Connect Health for synchronization services
365 Admin Expert Question 14
Brightleaf Systems holds a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription and plans to trial attack simulation training for all employees. Which pairing of social engineering tactic and training scenario does the E3 trial offer?
-
❏ A. Credential harvesting and Mass Market Phishing
-
❏ B. Credential harvesting and Web based phishing
-
❏ C. Malicious hyperlink and Web Phishing
-
❏ D. Malware attachment and Identity Theft simulation
365 Admin Expert Question 15
Which actions enable administrators to deploy sensitivity labels and label policies in the Compliance Center? (Choose 2)
-
❏ A. Publish sensitivity labels by adding them to a label policy
-
❏ B. Delete sensitivity labels and retroactively remove protections
-
❏ C. Use PowerShell cmdlets to configure additional label settings
365 Admin Expert Question 16
An international marketing firm is configuring its Acme Productivity Suite tenant and needs to manage global account details and security policies. Which tasks can an administrator perform when managing the organization settings? (Choose 4)
-
❏ A. Change the organization’s legal entity name
-
❏ B. Require multifactor authentication for users
-
❏ C. Apply a custom visual theme and logo to the tenant
-
❏ D. Define password expiration and rotation rules
365 Admin Expert Question 17
Fabrikam Inc is looking to strengthen access controls for its Microsoft Azure administrative operations and they must ensure that every administrator uses an extra verification step when they manage Azure resources regardless of where they sign in from. Which Conditional Access policy will meet this requirement?
-
❏ A. Block sign ins that use legacy authentication protocols
-
❏ B. Require organization managed devices for administrative applications
-
❏ C. Enforce multi factor authentication for administrative operations in Azure
-
❏ D. Block access from specific geographic regions
365 Admin Expert Question 18
Marigold Systems used an App Usage Scanner and discovered multiple high risk third party applications being accessed by staff members, and the chief information officer wants immediate measures to reduce security exposure, which action should be taken first?
-
❏ A. Cut off access to all identified high risk applications immediately
-
❏ B. Enforce conditional access controls through Cloud Identity to restrict risky app access
-
❏ C. Deploy Data Loss Prevention policies using Cloud DLP
-
❏ D. Perform a detailed assessment of application usage and possible data exposure
365 Admin Expert Question 19
You work as a compliance administrator at a regional charity and you need to limit access to a SharePoint Online site by using sensitivity labels. Which capability must you activate first?
-
❏ A. Microsoft Purview compliance portal
-
❏ B. Enable sensitivity label support for Teams Microsoft 365 groups and SharePoint sites
-
❏ C. Autolabeling policies for SharePoint
-
❏ D. Azure Information Protection unified labeling client
365 Admin Expert Question 20
Which metric is not typically displayed in a network diagnostics overview within an admin portal?
-
❏ A. DNS lookup latency
-
❏ B. Individual user web browsing history
-
❏ C. TCP round trip latency
-
❏ D. HTTP error rate
365 Admin Expert Question 21
You manage IT for a mid sized company named Meridian Solutions and you plan to deploy multi factor authentication while minimizing user disruption. Which MFA approach lets you enforce detailed access rules based on conditions such as a user’s network location or the compliance state of their device?
-
❏ A. Microsoft Authenticator mobile app
-
❏ B. OATH one time password hardware tokens
-
❏ C. Azure Active Directory security defaults
-
❏ D. Conditional Access policies
365 Admin Expert Question 22
A workstation at BrightWave Analytics is exhibiting unusual outbound connections and unauthorized processes and you must stop further damage immediately. Which capability of the vendor endpoint protection solution should you use?
-
❏ A. Threat and vulnerability risk management
-
❏ B. Attack surface reduction policies
-
❏ C. Endpoint isolation
-
❏ D. Automated investigation and remediation
-
❏ E. Custom indicators of compromise
365 Admin Expert Question 23
As the messaging administrator for a regional nonprofit you want to apply encryption only when messages are delivered to people outside your company. Which condition should you add to the mail flow rule to achieve that goal?
-
❏ A. The recipient is inside the organization
-
❏ B. The sender is outside the organization
-
❏ C. The recipient is outside the organization
-
❏ D. The sender is inside the organization
365 Admin Expert Question 24
A multinational retailer plans to use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to strengthen administration across their Azure and Microsoft 365 tenants. Which combination of controls should they implement to manage privileged roles effectively?
-
❏ A. Assign eligible roles but rely on manual quarterly access reviews and skip activation MFA for convenience
-
❏ B. Make all Global Administrator accounts permanently active while enforcing multi factor authentication for activation
-
❏ C. Maintain permanent break glass emergency accounts and do not require MFA when activating roles
-
❏ D. Apply time limited eligible assignments for critical administrators enforce multi factor authentication for role activation and enable automated access reviews
365 Admin Expert Question 25
Is it possible to retrieve license purchase records, subscription status, and billing cadence from the Entra ID admin center?
-
❏ A. Entra ID admin center
-
❏ B. Microsoft 365 admin center
365 Admin Expert Question 26
A regional insurance company runs an on premises Active Directory domain with a domain controller named DC-01 and a member host named SRV-APP02. The security team plans to deploy Microsoft 365 Defender for Identity and install a standalone sensor on SRV-APP02. What configuration is required so the Defender for Identity sensor can observe the domain controller network traffic?
-
❏ A. Install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on SRV-APP02
-
❏ B. Add SRV-APP02 to the Domain Admins group
-
❏ C. Enable port mirroring from DC-01 to SRV-APP02
-
❏ D. Open inbound Windows Firewall rules on SRV-APP02 for traffic from DC-01
365 Admin Expert Question 27
If security teams leave insider risk alerts uninvestigated for a prolonged interval can the system increase the alert severity level?
-
❏ A. No the alert severity remains the same
-
❏ B. Yes unresolved alerts can have their severity escalated
365 Admin Expert Question 28
At Verdant Systems you must assign a role in Azure Active Directory to an engineer who needs to configure multi factor authentication settings and manage user authentication methods while also handling support cases in both the Azure portal and the Microsoft 365 admin center. Which role should you assign to this engineer?
-
❏ A. Privileged Authentication Administrator
-
❏ B. User Administrator
-
❏ C. Authentication Administrator
-
❏ D. Authentication Policy Administrator
365 Admin Expert Question 29
A regional nonprofit called HarborTech is adding a custom domain such as staff.example.com to its CloudWork productivity platform and must prove control of the domain before it can be used with the service, what method can be used to verify ownership?
-
❏ A. Upload a verification HTML file to the site root
-
❏ B. Add a TXT record to the domain DNS records
-
❏ C. Send a message from an address at the domain to the vendor support team
-
❏ D. Arrange a live video session with support to present identity documents
365 Admin Expert Question 30
How do app connectors used by a cloud access security broker collect telemetry and configuration data from the cloud services they monitor?
-
❏ A. They require installing agent software on every user device
-
❏ B. They use cloud providers’ public APIs to collect telemetry and settings without agents
-
❏ C. They intercept user sessions as an inline proxy to enforce policies
365 Admin Expert Question 31
You are a Microsoft 365 administrator at Evergreen Technologies and after you re enabled directory synchronization several users are unable to sign in. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
-
❏ A. Directory synchronization was turned off using Azure AD PowerShell
-
❏ B. User passwords were modified in Microsoft 365
-
❏ C. The on premises Active Directory regained authority over the user accounts
-
❏ D. Accounts were deleted from the local Active Directory
365 Admin Expert Question 32
You work as a risk analyst at Northbridge Systems and you are reviewing the internal threat categories covered in a recent compliance briefing. Which of the following items was not defined as an internal risk in that briefing?
-
❏ A. Insider trading by employees
-
❏ B. Theft of company intellectual property
-
❏ C. Employee morale and job satisfaction
-
❏ D. Unauthorized disclosure of confidential information
365 Admin Expert Question 33
You work as the IT lead for a regional nonprofit called HarborTech and you must apply configuration policies for Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise to staff computers that are not joined to an Active Directory domain. Which capability should you use?
-
❏ A. Microsoft 365 Apps Health
-
❏ B. Servicing Profile
-
❏ C. Office Customization Tool
-
❏ D. Office Cloud Policy Service
365 Admin Expert Question 34
As an administrator at NovaTech you need to restore a user’s ability to send email after they were blocked. Which approaches can you use to remove the block?
-
❏ A. Reset the user password in the tenant identity management console
-
❏ B. Use Exchange Online PowerShell to clear the block
-
❏ C. Both of the above methods
-
❏ D. Remove the account from the “Restricted accounts” section of the organization security portal
365 Admin Expert Question 35
Which Microsoft Entra ID Protection settings will send immediate alerts for high risk accounts and deliver a weekly digest to selected security leads?
-
❏ A. Enable the “Users at risk detected” alert for low risk accounts and notify all administrators
-
❏ B. Enable the “Users at risk detected” alert for high risk accounts and configure the weekly digest to selected security leads
-
❏ C. Rely on the Risky users report in the admin center for manual reviews
365 Admin Expert Question 36
ArborTech is configuring endpoint data loss prevention inside the ArborTech Data Governance portal and the security team needs clarity on how the settings behave across platforms and resources. Which of the following statements about endpoint DLP settings are accurate? (Choose 2)
-
❏ A. Restricted app groups take precedence over entries in the restricted apps list when both appear in the same rule
-
❏ B. Network share coverage and exclusion settings extend endpoint DLP policies to file shares and mapped network drives
-
❏ C. You can configure file path exclusions for both Windows and macOS clients
-
❏ D. Advanced content classification and enforcement is available only on Windows devices
365 Admin Expert Question 37
As an administrator of a Contoso 365 tenant which administrative role must be assigned to permit creation of guest users in the tenant directory?
-
❏ A. Compliance Administrator
-
❏ B. Privileged Role Administrator
-
❏ C. Global Administrator or a limited Azure AD directory role like Guest Inviter or User Administrator
-
❏ D. Security Administrator
365 Admin Expert Question 38
You are the IT lead at a growing retail chain named Cedar Row and you need to monitor the Microsoft Secure Score for the organization over time. You have observed a decline during the past four weeks. Which tab should you open to view the score timeline and the actions recorded in that timeframe?
-
❏ A. Trends and metrics
-
❏ B. Dashboard overview
-
❏ C. Cloud Monitoring
-
❏ D. Score history
365 Admin Expert Question 39
You are the IT lead for Meridian Finance and you need to delegate compliance responsibilities to specific administrators. One team member must monitor regulatory compliance procedures and handle compliance alerts across Microsoft 365 services. Which role should you assign to that team member?
-
❏ A. Microsoft 365 Migration Administrator
-
❏ B. Global Administrator
-
❏ C. Compliance Data Administrator
-
❏ D. Exchange Administrator
365 Admin Expert Question 40
An email has two retention labels. One label deletes the message after three years and the other preserves the message for eight years before deleting it. Which retention period applies?
-
❏ A. Removed after three years
-
❏ B. Retained for eight years then removed
-
❏ C. Preserved permanently
365 Admin Expert Question 41
You are the chief information security officer at a regional retail chain that is planning to migrate its operations to cloud platforms. What is a core concern you should have about Microsoft 365?
-
❏ A. How well Microsoft 365 integrates with Google Cloud Identity for unified access control
-
❏ B. Whether the Microsoft 365 user experience will require extensive retraining for staff
-
❏ C. How Microsoft 365 defends employee accounts and organizational data against cyber attacks
-
❏ D. The pricing differences between Microsoft 365 subscription tiers
365 Admin Expert Question 42
Aegis Health Solutions plans to use Microsoft Entra Connect cloud sync to mirror their on premises Active Directory with Microsoft Entra ID and they want to restrict synchronization to employees in specific departments and groups. Which configuration change in the cloud sync setup will best enforce this limitation?
-
❏ A. Use attribute mappings to filter users by their department attribute
-
❏ B. Use on demand provisioning to manually pick individual users for synchronization
-
❏ C. Apply scoping filters that target security groups or organizational units in the on premises Active Directory
-
❏ D. Enable password hash synchronization across the entire on premises directory
365 Admin Expert Question 43
A regional distributor requires 25 mailboxes for staff and two of the mailboxes will be shared by two employees. Five staff members are field technicians who do not need the desktop Microsoft 365 apps. The administrator purchased 20 Microsoft 365 Business Standard licenses and 5 Microsoft 365 Business Basic licenses to minimize cost. Is this the correct purchase for licensing the users?
-
❏ A. Buy a reduced set of 23 licenses with 18 Microsoft 365 Business Standard and 5 Microsoft 365 Business Basic
-
❏ B. Yes the purchased mix of licenses is appropriate
-
❏ C. No this procurement is not optimal
-
❏ D. Use Exchange Online Plan 1 for the five field technicians instead of Business Basic
365 Admin Expert Question 44
Aurora Systems uses Microsoft 365 and its policy prohibits sending Social Security Numbers by email. Can you create an Azure Information Protection label and configure its policy from the Azure portal to enforce that restriction?
365 Admin Expert Question 45
Which core element should be secured to establish a Zero Trust control plane?
-
❏ A. Network firewall rules
-
❏ B. Digital identities for users services and devices
-
❏ C. Cloud VPN configurations
365 Admin Expert Question 46
For high availability in its file synchronization service Contoso recommends running how many active Sync agents?
-
❏ A. Two active Sync agents
-
❏ B. Four active Sync agents
-
❏ C. Three active Sync agents
-
❏ D. One active Sync agent
365 Admin Expert Question 47
A regional firm named Northbridge Solutions uses Microsoft 365 for email collaboration and cloud tools and they plan to roll out Microsoft Intune for device management. All staff currently have Microsoft 365 Business Standard and the organization does not want to upgrade from Standard although they may accept a modest additional cost. Which license would allow them to deploy Microsoft Intune?
-
❏ A. Microsoft 365 Business Premium
-
❏ B. Microsoft Intune standalone subscription
-
❏ C. Microsoft 365 E3 license
-
❏ D. Enterprise Mobility and Security E3
365 Admin Expert Question 48
In the Everguard compliance dashboard how long can it take for rule matches from the default endpoint DLP policy to appear in the status tile?
-
❏ A. 1.5 days
-
❏ B. 3 days
-
❏ C. 2 days
-
❏ D. 1 day
365 Admin Expert Question 49
Which statements about role assignments in Contoso’s Entra Privileged Identity Management are accurate? (Choose 3)
-
❏ A. Active role assignments provide immediate role access without extra steps
-
❏ B. PIM supports only permanent role assignments
-
❏ C. Eligible role assignments require activation or a request for approval before use
-
❏ D. Time limited assignments can be scheduled with specific start and end dates for both eligible and active statuses
365 Admin Expert Question 50
When synchronizing data with a cloud provider how should an integration handle API rate limits and throttling?
-
❏ A. Use event streaming to avoid polling APIs
-
❏ B. Batch and pace API calls and stagger large operations over time
-
❏ C. Ignore limits and retry on throttled responses
365 Administrator Expert Exam Answers
365 Admin Expert Question 1
Fill the missing word. To protect data in Acme Cloud Workspace from accidental deletion, cyber threats and other forms of data loss, administrators should implement a comprehensive __ strategy?
The correct option is Backup.
A comprehensive Backup strategy provides separate, restorable copies of data so administrators can recover from accidental deletion, corruption, or ransomware. Backups enable point in time restores and can be stored in separate locations or systems so recovery is possible even when the primary environment is compromised.
Retention and legal hold policy preserves data for compliance and can prevent intentional deletion, but it does not create recoverable copies or provide point in time restores for operational recovery.
Cloud Storage snapshot policies suggests point in time copies for certain storage types, but snapshots are usually limited to particular resources and do not replace a full backup program that includes offsite retention and recovery planning.
Encryption at rest protects the confidentiality of stored data, but it does not prevent deletion or corruption and it does not provide a mechanism to restore lost or compromised data.
Cameron’s MS-102 Certification Exam Tip
When a question asks about protecting data from accidental deletion or ransomware focus on recoverability and think backup as the operational solution rather than only retention rules or encryption.
365 Admin Expert Question 2
At Meridian Tech when a Microsoft Teams data loss prevention rule prevents external sharing of confidential content what happens to messages that contain that sensitive information and are sent to external recipients within 30 seconds?
-
✓ C. automatically deleted from the thread
The correct option is automatically deleted from the thread.
When a Microsoft Teams data loss prevention rule prevents external sharing of confidential content the enforcement removes the offending messages from the conversation so that the sensitive content is no longer accessible in the thread. This removal happens within the short evaluation window so messages sent to external recipients are deleted rather than left visible.
Microsoft Purview DLP for Teams scans messages and applies the configured enforcement action in real time and in this scenario the configured action is removal so the messages are deleted from the thread.
quarantined for compliance review is incorrect because Teams chat messages are not moved to a quarantine folder in the same way that some email threats are handled. Quarantine workflows apply to other service areas and are not the typical Teams DLP outcome.
redacted and delivered with placeholders is incorrect because Teams does not typically replace sensitive chat content with placeholders for external recipients. Redaction is not the standard enforcement for Teams chat messages.
blocked and not delivered to external recipients is incorrect because blocking would prevent delivery but the described behavior is that the message is removed from the thread after detection. The exam scenario expects the deletion behavior rather than simple blocking.
365 Admin Expert Question 3
A regional retailer named Meridian Retail runs an on premises Active Directory domain and has an AD FS farm with two AD FS servers on the internal network and two Web Application Proxy servers in the DMZ. The team configures hybrid identity with an Entra ID tenant and deploys a custom Microsoft Entra Connect setup that uses one active Entra Connect server and one server in staging mode. The requirement is to track sign in activity including the count and kinds of authentications and the count and kinds of authentication failures. The administrators install the Microsoft Entra Connect Health agent for AD FS on the AD FS servers and on the WAP servers. Does this configuration provide the required authentication activity and failure telemetry?
The correct option is No.
This configuration does not provide the required authentication activity and failure telemetry. The Microsoft Entra Connect Health agent for AD FS monitors service health, performance counters, and configuration issues and it generates alerts, but it does not produce aggregated counts and kinds of authentications or the detailed authentication failure counts that the requirement asks for.
To capture counts and types of authentications and failures you must collect Entra ID sign in logs for cloud authentication events and you must also collect AD FS audit and debug events from the on premises AD FS servers and the Web Application Proxy layer. Those logs need to be forwarded to Log Analytics or a SIEM and you must enable the appropriate diagnostic settings to get the detailed telemetry.
Enable Entra ID sign in logs and forward them to Log Analytics is not sufficient by itself. Entra ID sign in logs provide detailed cloud authentication events but they do not include the AD FS internal events and WAP layer failures needed for a complete view of on premises federation activity.
Yes installing the Entra Connect Health agent on AD FS and WAP is sufficient is incorrect because the Connect Health agent focuses on health and performance and does not emit the kinds of authentication and failure counts requested. The agent helps troubleshoot AD FS performance and configuration but it does not replace sign in logs or AD FS audit logging for authentication metrics.
Deploy Microsoft Sentinel and ingest AD FS and Entra ID telemetry is not the selected answer to the question as presented, but it is a valid remediation. If you deploy Sentinel and ingest both Entra ID sign in logs and AD FS events into Log Analytics you can build reports that show counts and kinds of authentications and failures. The option is marked incorrect for the prompt because the question asked whether the current agent installation already provides the required telemetry.
Cameron’s MS-102 Certification Exam Tip
When you must decide if an existing deployment meets a logging requirement first list what each component actually collects and then map those items to the required telemetry. Entra Connect Health provides health metrics and alerts not detailed sign in or authentication failure counts.
365 Admin Expert Question 4
The security operations unit at Northwind Logistics is overwhelmed by a continuous stream of security alerts. Which capability in Microsoft 365 Defender can automate the investigation and remediation of those alerts?
-
✓ B. Automated investigation and remediation
Automated investigation and remediation is the correct option.
This capability in Microsoft 365 Defender automatically investigates alerts by collecting related signals and applying built in investigation logic to determine the scope and cause of an incident. It can then apply automated remediation actions to contain threats and reduce the manual effort required by the security operations team.
Microsoft Intelligent Security Graph is incorrect because it is a set of threat intelligence and APIs that surface signals across Microsoft services rather than the specific automation feature that runs investigations and remediations.
Microsoft Defender for Endpoint is incorrect because it is a product that provides endpoint protection and telemetry. The question asks for the capability that automates investigation and remediation across alerts and products which is the automated investigation and remediation feature within Microsoft 365 Defender.
Security Action Center is incorrect because that name does not refer to the automated investigation and remediation capability. It sounds like a console or summary view and it is not the feature that performs automated investigations and remediation.
Cameron’s MS-102 Certification Exam Tip
When a question asks about a capability look for an answer that describes an automatic action or workflow rather than a product name. Focus on terms like automated investigation or remediation when alerts need to be handled with minimal manual work.
365 Admin Expert Question 5
A user has not configured alternate contact methods for self service password reset. What should they do next?
-
✓ B. Ask the Microsoft 365 administrator to reset the account password
The correct answer is Ask the Microsoft 365 administrator to reset the account password.
This is correct because self service password reset requires alternate contact methods to be registered and if the user has not configured those methods they cannot use the automated reset flow. The administrator can reset